This is such a critical point that modern conservative Christians either don't know about or sweep under the rug if they do. The word the gospel writer uses was almost always used in contemporary Greek to describe a sexual partner. It could sometimes be used in other contexts, however the author would have known what its primary use was, and surely would have made clear that's not what he meant, if that's not what he meant.

The fact that Jesus didn't care one way or the other, didn't even see fit to mention it should tell us all something.

So should the fact that the gospel and epistle writers didn't mention it. They all knew the story, apparently, and none of them felt it important enough to comment on.

Maybe modern conservative Christians should emulate them.